100+ Indian Polity Quiz for UPSC(IAS, IPS, IFS), Railways, Bank Exam aspirant

1. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

A. It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
B. It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
C. It contains the provisions regarding administration of Tribal areas
D. It allocates seats in the Council of States

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

4th Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha. (upper house of Parliament) for state or union territory.
Schedules in Indian Constitution are basically lists which categorize and tabulate various items related to constitutional matters. Indian Constitution originally had eight schedules. Four more schedules were added by different amendments, now making a total of twelve.
7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union government and State governments.
8th Schedule deal with Scheduled languages listed in the Constitution.
5th Schedule deals with provisions regarding administration of Tribal areas.

2. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended ?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fifth

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

If to create new state or union teritorry then First schedule of the constitution is amended by parliament of Inida with Simple majority.
2nd Schedule deals with Salaries of persons holdings various constitutional offices such as President, Vice President, CAG, Supreme Court Judges, Governor etc.
3rd Schedule deals Forms of Oaths which the persons elected / appointed on constitutional posts as President of india, Vice President of India, Prime Minister, Supreme Cort Chief justice etc.
5th Schedule deals Administration of Scheduled Areas.

3. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education ?

A. Article 349
B. Article 350
C. Article 350-A
D. Article 351

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Article 350A: It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
Article 349: During the period of fifteen years from the commencement of this Constitution, no Bill or amendment making provision for the language to be used for any of the purposes
Article 350: Every person shall be entitled to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the Union or a State in any of the languages used in the Union or in the State.
Article 351: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language.

4. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers ?

A. 39th
B. 40th
C. 42nd
D. 44th

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

44th Amendment (1978): The President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the President must accept it.
39th Amendment (1975): The Thirty-ninth Amendment of the Constitution of India placed the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. Later Supreme Court cancelled 39th Amendment which had deprived the Supreme Court of its jurisdiction to decide disputes concerning election of the President and the Vice-President.
40th Amendment (1976): Parliament was empowered to specify from time to time the limits of the territorial waters, the continental shelf, the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and the maritime zones of India.
42nd Amendment (1976): This amendment stripped the Supreme Court of many of its powers and moved the political system toward parliamentary sovereignty. Due to the large number of amendments this act has brought to the Indian Constitution, it is also known as 'Mini-Constitution'.

5. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the ?

A. Continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
B. Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
C. Reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
D. Allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

93rd Amendment (2006): This amendment added Article 15(5) to the Constitution was approved by both houses of Parliament. Reservation for Other Backward Class(OBCs) in government as well as private educational institutions.
86th Amendment (2002): Inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
84th Amendment (2001): Allocation of seat in Parliment based on Delimitation commission act. The main task of the Delimitation commission is redrawing the boundaries of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census.The apportionment was done thrice as per 1951, 1961 and 1971 population census.The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002. The 84th Amendment Act 2002 extended the freeze till the year 2026.

6. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish ?

A. Political democracy
B. Social democracy
C. Gandhian democracy
D. Social and economic democracy

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish the social and economic democracy. Directive principles are in the nature of instruments of instructions to the government. They are not justiciable or enforceable in courts.
Political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights. Fundamental rights are enforceable in the courts under Articles 32 and 226 of the constitution and hence are justiciable.

7. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security ?

A. 51
B. 48 A
C. 43 A
D. 41

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Article 51: States that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.
Article 48A: Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
Article 48A: Take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
Article 41: The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement etc.

8. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by ?

A. First Amendment
B. Eighth Amendment
C. Ninth Amendment
D. Forty Second Amendment

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

1st Amendment (1951): It inserted Ninth Schedule to the Constitution to protect the land reform
8th Amendment (1959): amended article 334 of the Constitution in order to extend the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and representation of the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for ten years, i.e. up to 26 January 1970. Article 334 had stipulated that the reservation of seats should expire within a period of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e. 26 January 1960). The 8th Amendment extended the period for reservations to 1970. The period of reservation was extended to 1980, 1990, 2000, 2010, 2020 and 2030 by the 23rd, 45th, 62nd, 79th, 95th and 104th Amendments respectively.

9. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002) ?

A. Article 121
B. Article 122
C. Article 123
D. Article 124

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

President can promulgate ordinance under Article 123 of indian Constitution when either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is not in session or if both are not in session. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are in the nature of temporary laws.The ordinance valid upto 6 months. An ordinance will expire after 6 weeks once both houses of the Parliament are in session.
Article 121: No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President for the removal of the Judge.
Article 122: Courts not inquire into proceedings of Parliament.
Article 124: Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court.

10.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002) ?

A. Article 142
B. Article 143
C. Article 144
D. Article 145

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Article 143 provides power to the President to consult the Supreme Court.
Article 142: Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it
Article 144: Constitution mandates that all authorities civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court
Article 145: Rules of Court.

11.Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance ?

A. Article 215
B. Article 275
C. Article 325
D. Article 355

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Article 355: imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Article 215: High Courts to be courts of record. Every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
Article 275: Parliament may by law provide as grants-in aid to such States as Parliament may determine to be in need of assistance
Article 225: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex

12.Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States ?

A. 6th and 22nd
B. 13th and 38th
C. 7th and 31st
D. 11th and 42nd

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

7th Amendment(1956) of Indian Constitution was needed to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission regarding the reorganization of the states on a linguistic basis.
31st Amendment(1973) of Indian Constitution provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525 and reducing the upper limit for the representation of UTs from 25 to 20.

13.Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories ?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The 'First Schedule' of the constitution deals with list of States and Union Territories.
Second Schedule Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of Constitutional Post.
Third Schedule about Oaths or Affirmations of constitutional post.
Fourth Schedule of Constitution deals Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.

14.Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

A. It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
B. It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
C. It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
D. It allocates seats in the Council of States

Show Answer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Fourth Schedule of Constitution deals Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
Seventh Schedule: Division of powers between the Union and the States
Eigth Schedule: Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.
Fourth Schedule of Constitution deals Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.

15.Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union ?

A. Article 257
B. Article 258
C. Article 355
D. Article 356

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union under Article 257.
Article 355: It entrusts the duty upon Union to protect the states against “external aggression” and “internal disturbance” to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of Constitution.
State emergency (President’s Rule) on the ground of failure of Constitutional machinery in the states (Article 356) or failure to comply with the directions of the Centre (Article 365).

16.Which Article of the Constitution of India says, No child below the age of fourteen years shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment ?

A. Article 24
B. Article 45
C. Article 330
D. Article 368

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
Article 45: Provision for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
Article 330: Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People
Article 368: Constitution deals with the power of parliament to amend the constitution and its procedures.

17.Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?

A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. J. B. Kripalani
C. Jawaharalal Nehru
D. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. Following India's independence from British Government in 1947, its members served as the nation's first Parliament.Chairman of different Committees of Constituent Assembly:
Union Power Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru,
Drafting Committee – B R Ambedkar,
Flag Committee – J B Kriplani,
Fundamental Rights and Minority Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel,
Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel.

18.Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

A. Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
B. Agriculture
C. Fisheries
D. Public Health

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Agriculture, Fisheries, Public Health are in the State List. Regulation of Labour and safety in mines and oil fields is in the Union list.,
The seventh schedule under Article 246 of the constitution deals with the division of powers between the union and the states. It contains three lists Union List, State List and Concurrent List. The union list details the subjects on which Parliament may make laws while the state list details those under the purview of state legislatures. The concurrent list on the other hand has subjects in which both Parliament and state legislatures have jurisdiction. However the Constitution provides federal supremacy to Parliament on concurrent list items in case of a conflict.

19.What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill related to ?

A. Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain states
B. Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
C. Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions
D. Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the central Government

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The Indian Parliament has passed the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill, providing reservations for the socially and educationally backward classes, in all private aided and unaided educational institutions

20.Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India ?

A. University Grants Commission
B. National Human Rights Commission
C. Election Commission
D. Central Vigilance Commission

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission of India is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of conducting the elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. The Election Commission of India is a three-member body, with one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners.
The University Grants Commission of India (UGC India) is a statutory body set up by the Government of India in accordance to the UGC Act 1956.
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.

21.Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively ?

A. 91st
B. 93rd
C. 95th
D. 97th

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 has made the following provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices.The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (Article 75).

22.Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains Special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States ?

A. Third
B. Fifth
C. Seventh
D. Ninth

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Fifth schedule relates to the control and administration of scheduled areas in states other than Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram. While Sixth Schedule deals with administration and control of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
Third Schedule deals Oaths or Affirmations of Constitutional post.
Seventh schedule deals with Division of powers between the Union and the States
Ninth Schedule deals with state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters.

23.Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22 ?

A. Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
B. Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
C. Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
D. Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act

Show Answer

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967.
Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
Oriya was renamed as ‘Odia’ by the 96th Amendment Act of 2011.

24.Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People ?

A. 90th
B. 91st
C. 92nd
D. 93rd

Show Answer

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 has made the following provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices.The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (Article 75).

25.Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty ?

A. To vote in public elections
B. To develop the scientific temper
C. To safeguard public property
D. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Show Answer

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

To vote in public elections is not a fundamental duty.
The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution. This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.
Respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
Defend the country and render national service when called upon
To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
To preserve the rich heritage of our culture
To protect and improve the natural environment
To develop the scientific temper
To safeguard public property
To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child between the age of six and fourteen years